My video for the M&A package has expired so I'm just going off of what I have in my notes and in the Pepsi/Molson M&A excel model. It seems the differentiating factor between Tax Deductible and Non-Tax Deductible Intangibles is whether the asset has a finite or infinite life. Separately, I was under the impression that for book accounting, the acquirer does not amortize the infinite life intangibles, but instead test them for impairment (this includes goodwill, and also perpetual rights and licenses). However, the model contradicts my understanding and I would like to confirm which way is correct. Which FASB rule supports this?
Secondly, I was taught that for tax accounting, under a stock deal, the acquirer does not amortize any type of intangible unless there is a Section 338 election. However, in the model, you amortize intangibles with finite lives. Which is correct? Which IRS code supports this?
Thanks
